troubledTom Posted June 14, 2011 Share Posted June 14, 2011 A quick hypothetical ... Two people are in a committed relationship of several years. One of the two people owns a house, without a mortgage or any other encumberances (ie there are no financial dues on the house). The couple live in this house. Both share all bills, chores, etc but otherwise keep finances separate (ie, both parties' income is private income). The question is, would it be reasonable to expect the non-owner of the house to pay rent? That is, the non-owner whose presence in the house exacts no financial burden on the owner is - as a matter of course, perhaps - expected to pay rent. I'm interested in the thoughts of the people visiting this forum. What are the ethics of charging one's partner rent in these circumstances? Would you consider it unreasonable/unethical, or reasonable/ethical? What would be your reasons for believing so? Thanks for your time. Link to comment
Firiel Posted June 14, 2011 Share Posted June 14, 2011 If I owned a house with that was paid off, then I would not charge a SO rent. I would split the living costs, but I wouldn't charge extra for rent. To me, it would feel kind of rude to actually earn what amounts to extra spending money because my SO moved in with me. Lowering expenses is one thing... that's expected. But actually being paid money that didn't go to anything but whatever I wanted would seem just... weird, I guess. Link to comment
jengh Posted June 14, 2011 Share Posted June 14, 2011 Wait, the person owns the house right-out and isn't paying a mortgage? No, I wouldn't charge. Share other expenses, yes. Otherwise, it's like you're just roommates. Link to comment
Recommended Posts
Archived
This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.