Jump to content

ironpony

Banned Users
  • Posts

    413
  • Joined

  • Last visited

Recent Profile Visitors

The recent visitors block is disabled and is not being shown to other users.

ironpony's Achievements

Community Regular

Community Regular (8/14)

  • First Post
  • Collaborator
  • Conversation Starter
  • Week One Done
  • One Month Later

Recent Badges

1

Reputation

  1. Well she asked to see it, cause she wanted to know I didn't fake it.
  2. Sorry for not being appropriate on this forum, if I was. This is interesting, cause a good amount of the time, I have to urinate shortly afterwards, and maybe this is why? Sometimes I take Cialis, but other than that, no meds.
  3. As a guy, I thought of myself as multi-orgasmic in the sense that I think I am going to ejaculate, and I have a small orgasm, but I don't ejaculate... Then I think I come close to ejaculating again, and orgasm, but don't ejaculate... then again, and again, etc. Then finally I build up to the big orgasm and then ejaculate with it. But I was told by other guys that all these orgasms do not count as orgasms, and it only counts if you ejaculate with it. A few months ago, I had sex with a woman and orgasmed in about two minutes or less, cause she was really hot, and she thought that I faked it and didn't believe I could come that fast. Or she said she didn't think I could so I thought she assumed I faked it, especially when she asked to see my condom cause she wanted to see if I ejaculated. I thought I probably did cause of the orgasm I had, but it turned out that it the condom was dry on the inside and I did not ejaculate inside it. So I explained to her that I had a dry orgasm, but she kind of raised an eyebrow like she never heard of that. So why do you think? Does it count as an orgasm for a guy if there is no ejaculation, out of curiosity?
×
×
  • Create New...